Examine the Verse
John 1:30
This verse is claimed to imply support to
the Trinitarian belief in the the
pre-existence and/or divinity of Jesus Christ.
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This is
He of whom I said,
‘After me comes a Man who is preferred
before me, for He was before me.’
(John 1:30, New King James Version) |
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Trinitarian Belief in
God and Jesus Christ:
Trinitarians believe in the Trinity, that God is the "Triune God"
existing as
three persons―
God the Father,
God the Son and God the Holy Spirit, but one being.
All three are
eternal
with no beginning.
Members of the Trinity are
co-equal and co-eternal,
one in
essence, nature, power, action, and will.
Trinitarians believe that Jesus Christ is the eternal second person
"God the Son",
who took on a human body and nature and became
both man and God.
Thus is Jesus is fully man
and fully God simultaneously. |
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Apostle's admonition, warning and
unique way of teaching:
1.
No prophecy of scripture is a matter of personal
interpretation. (II Pt. 1:20, NAB)
2. Do not go beyond what
is written. (I
Cor. 4:6, NIV)
3.
We do not use words of human wisdom. We speak words given to
us by the Spirit,
using the Spirit's words to explain spiritual truths. (1
Cor. 2:13, NLT) |
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Points to Consider: |
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1. Notice
that in the above verse, John the Baptist is talking about
Jesus, and he said: "After
me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He
was before me". Thus, it is very clear that
John the Baptist did not say that "Jesus, a Man,
pre-existed as God".
2. How can Trinitarians explain that the above verse
mean that "Jesus Christ, a man, pre-existed as God" or say
that "God changed to a man or God-man",
when it is contrary to the truth written in the Bible that
"God never change or does not change", and that "God is not
a man nor a son of man"?. Is that not going beyond what is
written in the verse?
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Descendants of Jacob, I am the LORD All-Powerful,
and I never change. . . . . . . (Malachi
3:6, CEV)
Every good gift and perfect
present comes from God, the Creator of heavenly
lights, who does not change (James 1:17, TEV)
"God is
not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man,
that He should repent. Has He said, and will He not
do it? Or has He spoken, and will He not make it
good? (Numbers
23:19, NKJV) |
3. So, why did
John the Baptist say that: "After
me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before
me"?
For explanation, please click link to
Interesting Questions #13. |
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John 1:30 in other versions of
the Bible: |
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This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man
which is preferred before me: for he was before me.
(King James
Version)
This is he of whom I said,
‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was
before me.’
(English Standard Version)
This is the
one I meant when I said, ‘A man who comes after me has
surpassed me because he was before me.’
(New International Version)
You may use other version or translation of the Holy Bible.
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___________________
Bible Study
Suggestion: |
- Search the internet for the
Trinitarian explanation of the above verse.
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Examine
- consider in detail and subject to an analysis in order to discover
essential features or meaning;
Source:
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/examine
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